Monday, July 2, 2007

why did Paul write Romans?

I'm glad you asked. Rom 1.5 and 16.26 are quite significant. Both include the phrase "the obedience of faith among all nations." Obviously translations vary, but the Greek is nearly identical [eis hupakoen pisteos en pasin tois ethnesin]. This highlights the whole purpose for the epistle. Many say the reason for Romans is in 1.16-17. However, that fits under the rubric of this inclusio. Just as Psalm 8 begins and ends with the same phrase for emphasis, Paul opens and closes his magnum opus in the same manner to shed light on everything in between.

1 comment:

.Colin. said...

dude this is so helpful. weird, cause I was reading through Romans about 5 months ago, and said, wow that is verse is massive.

question, "through whom WE have been given grace and apostleship..."

just Paul? Why use the plural? There weren't any apostles at the Church as far as we know, and even if, he wouldnt do it for that sake. Ive heard commentators say he uses the plural as a writing style to bring emphasis off of himself, but that just sounds like a weak argument to me.

So, is the apostleship to bring about the obedience of faith. obviously Paul has a SPECIFIC calling to the gentiles (Acts 9:15-16) but does this in soe way point to our being sent out as witnesses to the ends of the earth.

ok random ramble.

good insight, chap